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Evangelia Lowry's avatar

Perhaps I’m missing something, or misunderstanding something, but it seems like Rome’s position on “valid marriages” also makes marriage very unlike the other sacraments? No one would suggest that a baptism “didn’t take” because the person baptised unknowingly didn’t have the right mindset, or because they later went on to sin, because the sacraments are meant to be the work of the Holy Spirit. No one suggests that Holy Communion isn’t Holy Communion based on the disposition of the recipient. So why would marriage be so dramatically different?

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Benjamin John's avatar

I don't think this article was very well researched.

1. Right off the bat, your first church history reference is in AD 370. Why no mention of the pre-Nicene authors? Likely because they unanimously rejected remarriage after divorce. And of course no mention is made of Ss. Jerome, John Chrysostom, Augustine, Innocent, and many others who upheld the Catholic teaching that while divorce, viz. separation of the spouses, can sometimes be permitted, remarriage never is.

Even if you disagree with these authorities, even with good reason, to imply that every father of the church upheld the modern Eastern Orthodox teaching on divorce and remarriage comes off as dishonest. To be fair, you didn't outright say that, but acknowledging that there were divergent views in the early church would make this article more intellectually respectable.

2. Notice the quote you have from St. Basil: he rejects women being able to remarry after divorce. Does the Eastern Orthodox Church uphold that today?

3. How is the Tetragamy Controversy relevant to the question of remarriage after divorce? That was a matter of remarriage after death. That's what it seems the "three marriage rule" originally applied to, not remarriage after divorce. As Trullo itself states, that rule is from tradition, and so Rome being aware of it does not imply that they accepted the Canon IV of Trullo, certainly not as the Byzantines would go on to use it.

4. The Council of Rome in 826 is just quoting our Lord's words in Matthew's Gospel, not offering an extensive interpretation thereof. The emphasis is clearly on divorce, not remarriage. Pope St. Zacharias (741-752), Pope St. Nicholas I (858-867), and Pope John VIII (872-882) all upheld the absolute indissolubility of marriage, even in cases of adultery. The odds that Pope Eugene II reversed that, only to have it immediately reversed again, without anybody noticing, is unlikely in my opinion.

5. Read our Lord's words in Matthew 19:9 more carefully: "he who marries a divorced woman commits adultery." Does the Orthodox Church believe that anyone who marries a woman who was divorced from her husband commits adultery?

6. Towards the end, you reference the article I wrote for Catholic Answers and say, "some Catholics today will move the goalposts from saying it was always inadmissible to divorce even in cases of adultery, to now it being admissible to divorce but it is inadmissible to remarry." Do you have any evidence of this? As far as I'm aware, even counter-Reformation authors like St. Charles Borromeo, St. Francis de Sales, and St. Robert Bellarmine acknowledged the difference between divorce (legal separation), which was sometimes allowed, and remarriage, which was never allowed while the other spouse was alive.

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